<human>: Married +5 years, together almost 10 years. We have experienced long distance before(deployment, military training, etc.). This time is different. I'm in a different state working and she is working / living at her parent's house until I find work and we are reunited.

Roughly a year ago she told me that she had been faking every PIV orgasm she had ever had. This obviously was a huge blow to my ego (and trust). I feel like I have always demonstrated a "one-team, whatever problem we have" kind of attitude. I always communicate after sex, asking her what she liked/disliked. I've communicated to her that being long-distance I need her to still maintain a sexual relationship with me. Recently we were talking dirty to each other. I thought it was a mutual masterbation session. During which I discover that she isn't aroused, and was only "having fun ". Mind you she has orgasmed six times that day (mostly at my suggestion-phone sex).

Am I overreacting thinking that she isn't sexually attracted to me anymore? It truly felt like she was only doing me a favor because I was bitching about needing more of a sexual relationship and telling her I was horny. That isn't what I want. What do you think, Reddit? Sorry for any irregularities, I'm new to reddit.

Condense the text into a few key points
<bot>: Wife was having a mutual masterbation/dirty talk session. I found out she wasn't aroused, and was only continuing "for fun". I feel...idk.