<human>: Give me a shortened version of the text

Hey there reddit!

I just moved into a house for which I had signed the original lease 3 months ago but when I moved in last month we signed the lease again just as a "move-in sign again" it was supposed to have nothing changed just signing again in person ... The lease still had our original initials on each page but we initialed the pages again because the landlord asked and giving we are renting from an individual and it had our original initials I trusted it and didn't really read it as well as I read it before originally signing it.

I'm that guy that sits there and reads every letter of every contract I sign for ANYTHING ( honestly who doesn't do this? ) but just drove 2k miles over 3 days with kids and didn't really have time or the energy to read it again since I still had to unpack and was in a huge rush ...

Well I just found out that the landlord changed the late day grace period from 5 to 0, so the rent is late if it not paid by the 1st and the fee is $100.

The change was done by hand and NOT initialed but we did sign this copy of the lease ... I only found out about it since the landlord called today asking for the rent at 3pm since I haven't paid it yet ... I thought I had till the 5th and was explained it is late tomorrow blah blah blah.

I'm pretty upset about it and think it is a sleazy slumlord move ...

I'm never want to pay that fee and wondering what kind of actual legal ground this has to stand on and what I should say to this sleezeball for doing this.

I don't think the landlord has a leg to stand on given the documents still had our original initials from 3 months ago and the original lease from 3 months ago is in affect ... the only way to change it would be to amend it and not resign a lease with new changes or is this not correct??
<bot>: landlord changed rent late date by hand after signing original lease by having us sign the lease again on the date we moved in ... we never initialed the change but did resign the lease.