<human>: Condense the text into a few key points

Soo I was talking to my boyfriend about how my family wants a purebred English bulldog puppy, and he said that purebreds are more likely to get genetic disorders and diseases. I asked why (out of curiosity) and he said "Their genetics are only those of whatever dog it is, and since technically the parents are related, it's inbreeding too."

Now this seemed ridiculous to me, so I thought about it a little.... wouldn't that be like saying that if I had a kid with him (we don't come from the same family/bloodline) it would be "technically inbreeding" too, since we're the same species and we both are partially of German descent? Maybe I derped just as hard as he did, if he was even wrong.

I know that there are more humans than English bulldogs, so the likelihood of two related English bulldogs breeding is higher than that of two human beings breeding, but still. I don't see how it's a valid point that purebred dogs are more likely to develop genetic issues BECAUSE of "technical inbreeding."

Would someone be able to explain this to me? Is he right or wrong? I'm incredibly curious now.
<bot>: Is a purebred dog more apt to develop genetic disorders because its parents are of the same breed, so they're "technically inbreeding"?