<human>: Summarize the given text in a few sentences.

My girlfriend (F26) of 6 years and I (M27) have decided to buy a home, she inherited a good amount of money from a relative's passing. We negotiated a decent price, and her father has agreed loan us the remainder on the price on a 30 year amortization schedule with the current federal interest rate.  
When we got the the title work portion of the deal, I was told that i am not allowed to be on the title. Now i looked at "tenants in common", where she could own 90% and I, 10%. Something like that, I don't want to come off as wanting to swindle someone out of money. That is not my intention at all, it could be 99-1 for all i care. 50% of the amount that we sale it for one day, subtracting her down-payment of course, seems like the correct thing to do.  
I just would like my name to be on the title, so I can be a "homeowner". Otherwise i would just feel like (and be) a tenant once again. Am i wrong in feeling that i am somewhat being cheated?
<bot>: Girlfriend makes down-payment, her and her family don't want me on the title at all while paying my 1/2 of every mortgage/bill.